I agree with Mark.
I'm a relative newcomer, but "?" to me means a request for a repeat. This
would be kinda confusing to me.
Couldn't this also mean, "I tuned across this freq and I know someone just
called CQ. I didn't get the call sign so I'm dropping an "?" to get the
running station to resend so I can keep the S&P rate going".
Here's what seems reasonable to me IMHO.
1) You tune across an ostensibly clear freg.
2) Wait 5-8 seconds. There could be a qso going on. This involves 2
stations (The whole zero beat/tight filter argument seems like a red herring
3) Send "QRL?" and then wait at least 3-4 seconds for a response. If you
want to go the extra mile and drop another one, then great.
Uncle Riley said "Just spin the dial". If you are looking for a clear freq
without reasonable due dilligence, then aren't you in violation of the FCC
Just keep spinnin' the dial
My .02 cents.
73 - Guy
>From: "Mark Beckwith" <email@example.com>
>Subject: [CQ-Contest] "?" not equal to "QRL?"
>Date: Wed, 9 Aug 2006 18:35:45 -0500
> > If I send a question mark (di di dah dah di dit) twice
> > and hear nothing, the frequency is mine to use.
> "Di-di-dah-dah-di-dit" does not mean "is the frequency in use?" Using it
>as such is bad form. MHO.
> Mark, N5OT
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