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Re: [CQ-Contest] "?" not equal to "QRL?"

To: n5ot@n5ot.com, CQ-Contest@contesting.com
Subject: Re: [CQ-Contest] "?" not equal to "QRL?"
From: "Guy Molinari" <guy_molinari@hotmail.com>
Date: Thu, 10 Aug 2006 02:54:44 +0000
List-post: <mailto:cq-contest@contesting.com>
I agree with Mark.

I'm a relative newcomer, but "?" to me means a request for a repeat.   This 
would be kinda confusing to me.

Couldn't this also mean, "I tuned across this freq and I know someone just 
called CQ.   I didn't get the call sign so I'm dropping an "?" to get the 
running station to resend so I can keep the S&P rate going".

Here's what seems reasonable to me  IMHO.

1)  You tune across an ostensibly clear freg.
2)  Wait 5-8 seconds.   There could be a qso going on.   This involves 2 
stations (The whole zero beat/tight filter argument seems like a red herring 
to me.)
3) Send "QRL?" and then wait at least 3-4 seconds for a response.  If you 
want to go the extra mile and drop another one, then great.

Uncle Riley said "Just spin the dial".   If you are looking for a clear freq 
without reasonable due dilligence, then aren't you in violation of the FCC 

Just keep spinnin' the dial

My .02 cents.

73 - Guy

>From: "Mark Beckwith" <n5ot@n5ot.com>
>To: <CQ-Contest@contesting.com>
>Subject: [CQ-Contest] "?" not equal to "QRL?"
>Date: Wed, 9 Aug 2006 18:35:45 -0500
> > If I send a question mark (di di dah dah di dit) twice
> > and hear nothing, the frequency is mine to use.
>  "Di-di-dah-dah-di-dit" does not mean "is the frequency in use?"  Using it
>as such is bad form.  MHO.
>  Mark, N5OT
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