[AMPS] Re:

[gdaught6@leland.Stanford.EDU (George T. Daughters)]

hi all,

> Transforming 100 j+0  ohms to 100k j+0 ohms by a single reactance is 
> seemingly a bit of a 
> stretch.  

it looks like a snap to me! i've got no resistance ("0"), a pure 
reactance (+j100 ohms).  i want to go straight out the +imaginary 
axis from 100 ohms to 100k ohms.  so, i add an inductor in series 
with the existing 100j + 0 that has a reactance of j99.9k (+0);  the 
total is now j100k + 0, isn't it? i used a "single" reactance to 
transform the given impedance to the desired impedance.  i think that 
one was too easy... what am i missing?  

73,
George T. Daughters, K6GT

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