Gents,
How do you do it? I was on sojourn for four days, and upon my return
and login, am greeted with over three hundred emails from the reflector?
I believe I should clarify things which I have not been clear on. I do
not have a BSEE; I studied engineering for a few years, then received
degrees in history and music, with later graduate work in the
humantities. Thus, my electronics knowledge is from advancing that
which I acquired in a few years, and hands-on experience. In theory, I
have an MSEE, but it was awarded, and not deserved. The wonders of the
electronics world I have had to experience purely as a consultant,
although as such I have been a contractor to many truly wonderful
companies. So I do not consider my word "exact" by any means. I am
open to other theories, but I will measure those theories against the
understanding of physics that I did gain in my few years in school.
I will not point out the gentleman's name or call, as he communicated
via direct email and I have not seen the callsign on here, but it has
been pointed out to me where IMD products do not have to arise from
existing harmonics.
In the Taylor series expansion of a two-tone signal applied to a
nonlinear device, the term arises
((sin 2f1(t) + sin 2f2(t))^3
That's it, right there. When this term is expanded, IMD frequencies are
noted to be present.
I had jumped to a conclusion: since forcing the second harmonic of a
device back to the device in the correct phase will substantially reduce
third order IMD, I assumed this demonstrated that the presence of the
second harmonic was required. Mathematically, this is clearly not true.
Regards, Gents,
Arlen
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