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Re: [Amps] voltage swing in BJT amp

To: Drax Felton <draxfelton@gmail.com>, "amps@contesting.com" <amps@contesting.com>
Subject: Re: [Amps] voltage swing in BJT amp
From: Robert Groh <rgroh@swbell.net>
Reply-to: Robert Groh <rgroh@swbell.net>
Date: Tue, 21 Jul 2015 21:53:30 +0000 (UTC)
List-post: <amps@contesting.com">mailto:amps@contesting.com>
Drax, 

I think your math/typing is a bit off.  If I modify the math to match what I 
'think' you intended then I think the answer is yes'ish.
For a power of 1 mW (i.e. 0.001 watts), you can get there with any combination 
of voltage and current who product equals 1 mWe.g.  1 v and 1 mA (1V * 0.001A)  
OR   2 V and 0.5 mA (2V * 0.0005A) <-- Not quite the numbers you typed in but 
what I think you meant
OR  whatever
So strictly on the basis of the math, the answer is yes.
But when one throws in a 'real' device, things do get a bit more complicated.
Any other questions, feel free to email me directly.
73Bob Groh, WA2CKY 


     On Tuesday, July 21, 2015 4:20 PM, Drax Felton <draxfelton@gmail.com> 
wrote:
   

 I've been playing with designing a 475kHz amp in LTSpice.

 

Does it matter how much the voltage swings on the output of a RF power
amplifier?

 

Given P = I * V, and phase matched into a 50+j0 antenna

 

Are 0.001ws at 0.1v @ 0.01a

really the same as

0.001w at 2v @ 0.001a

on the receiving end even though the voltage is 2000 times higher?

 

Any reason to prefer one design over the other at these low voltage levels?

 

 

KB3X

 

 

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