[AMPS] Clarification and correction
Mon, 18 May 1998 07:19:52 PDT
How do you do it? I was on sojourn for four days, and upon my return
and login, am greeted with over three hundred emails from the reflector?
I believe I should clarify things which I have not been clear on. I do
not have a BSEE; I studied engineering for a few years, then received
degrees in history and music, with later graduate work in the
humantities. Thus, my electronics knowledge is from advancing that
which I acquired in a few years, and hands-on experience. In theory, I
have an MSEE, but it was awarded, and not deserved. The wonders of the
electronics world I have had to experience purely as a consultant,
although as such I have been a contractor to many truly wonderful
companies. So I do not consider my word "exact" by any means. I am
open to other theories, but I will measure those theories against the
understanding of physics that I did gain in my few years in school.
I will not point out the gentleman's name or call, as he communicated
via direct email and I have not seen the callsign on here, but it has
been pointed out to me where IMD products do not have to arise from
In the Taylor series expansion of a two-tone signal applied to a
nonlinear device, the term arises
((sin 2f1(t) + sin 2f2(t))^3
That's it, right there. When this term is expanded, IMD frequencies are
noted to be present.
I had jumped to a conclusion: since forcing the second harmonic of a
device back to the device in the correct phase will substantially reduce
third order IMD, I assumed this demonstrated that the presence of the
second harmonic was required. Mathematically, this is clearly not true.
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